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Make up time and legality of signed agreement

Hi my question is this; My ex took my Son on holiday in June and I gave her my week of school holidays. I am looking for make up time which is stated in our orders. The order says that the make up time must be equivilent to the time lost by me. I am asking for 1 week of make up time in the school holidays. Her solicitor however is saying they read the make up time clause as that yes she owes me 1 week but it doesn't have to be in school holiday period. They think the term 'equivilent' just refers to the number of days!

Can anyone tell me if this is accurate? My ex is always pulling these little stunts and insists on everything being through her solicitor. This is the last straw for me and am wondering a) can she do this and b) how do I go about taking this to the courts, costs etc. and what would my chances of winning be?



Thank you
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